I have posted on COBF before (don't remember which thread under Berkshire) but it is my speculation that the net buyback $ will approximate Warren Buffett's peak personal stake in the company. 30%+. It may take well over a decade and the market has to cooperate by allowing attractive repurchases. It will be a fitting way to seal his legacy by retiring all of his ownership. This was his painting anyway.
Here, I'm focusing on a part of a post made in this topic [post #119] by longinvestor. I really want to understand longinvestor's line of thinking. The exchange, that longinvestor is referring to here [I assume], took place on June 30
th 2018 in the topic
"Berkshire - cheap?", posts
#195 to
#202.
Here I'm nitpicking the heck out it - I'm simply bending it in neon, as my understanding now of longinvestor's line of thinking & proposal as I understand it now [longinvestor, please correct me, if I still don't get it correctly]:
1. Mr. Buffett - at his own discretion, based on what he personally considers fit, based on what ever [, including Berkshire stock market price] - decides to donate USD X billion worth of Berkshire stock to 1 - 4 foundations, as a one time gift, - and execute on it - on top of the 2006 pledge with amendment, as an "extra" - converting A shares to B, and to give them away. [with no promise to do it again next year etc. [, but he might perhaps do that actually ... - again, at his own personal discretion]].
2. The board of Berkshire and management bodies of the 1 - 4 foundations negotiate a private buyback deal for the shares just donated by Mr. Buffett, with every person in those management bodies being disaqualified because of conflicts of interests outside the negotiation room: Mr. Buffett, Mr. Gates & and his wife, & Mr. Buffett's descendants for the three family foundations. [Again, depending on which foundations involved.]
Did I get it right this time, longinvestor?