I think the facts are incomplete here. Sokol held shares already, but he bought more after taking the idea to Buffett and their subsequent discussion of why the business would be a good fit for Berkshire.
But if we are talking about beneficial interest and that interest increasing because of a financing investment by Berkshire, I think that is an obvious conflict with SRG and the term loan. Again, I expect an explanation, because that does not seem like Buffett's normal modus operandi. Cheers!
Besides, if he owns a third of BRK, then ~$630 million of the share of the money was "his", so are you we to believe that he risked $600+ million of his own money so he wouldn't lose money on the original $72 million investment?
Even if you reverse that statement...that he put $72M from Berkshire into the loan and held $600M in SRG shares...is that a conflict? So why would it not be if the numbers are reversed?
The fact that Buffett doesn't own 100% of Berkshire...that he's the CEO, a fiduciary to the shareholders...means that there has to be a firewall in how he operates his personal accounts that he owns 100% of and how he operates a corporation that he owns 30% of.
I can't own stock in my friend's public or private company in my personal account, and then give him a loan through the company I'm running which would solidify the value of that underlying stock. That's just common sense. Yes, I could do that if the company I was running held the stock...but not personally. And I would still be doing exactly the same as Buffett...risking more capital I own indirectly for a small equity position that I hold personally...that conflict hasn't disappeared, has it?
I am not a paragon of virtue, nor would I throw shade at Buffett...but we do run into the occasional hypocritical behavior or action by Buffett...which we should recognize as well as his genius and humanity. Again, I await an explanation that makes more sense to me from Berkshire...at the moment, it doesn't pass the old smell test.
Cheers!