@JRM
Thanks again for the links - hoping for constructive conversation (debate?) regarding some of the information in the links:
The link that I skimmed through was the Georgia-Senate-Subcommittee-Report
Let's set aside possible political motivations, and take the report at face-value; In addition, we'll set-aside issues like 'Georgia, of all places, probably would have investigated possible cheating-that-favored-Biden'.
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One of my biggest questions/concerns is actually mentioned in the report-itself; the bottom of p8-p9 speaks to alleged voting-result-disparity (in-favor-of-Biden). One of the quotes is literally, 100% in favor of one-side, is a statistical unlikelihood/impossibility - I'm sympathetic to that argument.
But, if I extrapolate that idea to the report-itself (not a specific example cited in the report), isn't the report basically a statistical unlikelihood/impossibility? What I mean is, every example that I skimmed through (and there were numerous) seemed to be an example in-favor-of-Biden
In other words, either 1) truly, after a proper inquiry, all (100%) of evidence seems to suggest that there was 'abnormal cheating in favor of Biden' (ie, there was no evidence of cheating in other direction), OR 2) this was not a reliable unbiased inquiry... ie, this is the equivalent of me-in-excel goalseeking to justify whatever solution the power-that-be-have-already-predetermined. OR, to use a marital-metaphor, if I was in a bad-mood, and wanted to draw up a subcommittee report where 100% of evidence suggests my spouse is incompetent? I suspect I could (and maybe I have...)- but would that prove that my spouse was incompetent (or just prove that I'm a hack)?
So i guess, I don't see evidence that 'there was discrepancy that favored Biden over Trump', or that 'there was discrepancy above-and-beyond historical norm'
Respectfully submitted